Seller owns "Full" Freehold are legally obligated to buy both?
We are First Time Buyers and have had an offer accepted on a 1st floor flat advertised as "Share of Freehold" however it has now arisen that the seller owns the "Full" Freehold (both ground floor [under a family members name] and first floor flats [under her own name]) and is trying to include both in our sale. We have checked and confirmed with potential lender that they will not provide a mortgage on a flat the owns the "Full" freehold. I just want to confirm my understanding that there is no LEGAL obligation that we have to purchase both ground floor and first floor freeholders from the seller?
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